I published my previous post in orkut.com and got a lot a responses,so i want to summarize the whole debate.
And believe in that which I reveal, confirming that which ye possess already (of the Scripture), and be not first to disbelieve therein, and part not with My revelations for a trifling price, and keep your duty unto Me. (2:41,translation by PICKTHAL)
Muhammad try to convince the Jews to accept him as a prophet,he wanted to assure them he's not deny their scripts,on the contrary,he confirms & validates the authentication of their scripts and he's the successor of the Jewish prophets.
Muslims,today believe that The Jewish/Christian Scripts are Corrupted so the try to explain that Muhammad didn't confirm the scripts Just confirm the Relevation to the prophets,assisted with the translation of YUSUFALI
And believe in what I reveal, confirming the revelation which is with you, and be not the first to
But still there's another translation that support the PICKTHAL translation:
And believe in what I have revealed, verifying that which is with you, and be not the first to deny it, neither take a mean price in exchange for My communications; and Me, Me alone should you fear.
To support the their explain,they brought this verse to show that Muhammad only confirm the Relevation:
Say: "We believe in Allah, and in what has been revealed to us and what was revealed to Abraham, Isma'il, Isaac, Jacob, and the Tribes, and in (the Books) given to Moses, Jesus, and the prophets, from their Lord: We make no distinction between one and another among them, and to Allah do we bow our will (in Islam)." (3:84 By YUSUFALI)
But the difference between are:
2:41 Muhammad talk to the Jews
3:84 Muhammad talk to his believers Hence the differences...
But there still no proof that Muhammad thought that the Jewish scripts are corrupted,so Another verse brought:
And there are among them illiterates, who know not the Book, but (see therein their own) desires, and they do nothing but conjecture. Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say:"This is from Allah," to traffic with it for miserable price!- Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby. (2:78-79 by YUSUFALI)
So Muslims say this verse talk about Jews and it say who write the Book with their own hands, and then say:"This is from Allah,"
So what does the verse say?Does it talk about Jews?It doesn't say ,but if so there differences between the 2 verses:
2:41 Muhammad talk to The Jewish community,as a public
2:78 Muhammad talk about individuals that deceive in order to sell scripts,but this verse doesn't talk about The scripts the Jewish community has.
So there's no evidence that Muhammad say that the Jewish scripts are corrupted,on the contra,Muhammad confirm the Jewish scripts!
So why Muslims don't accept this?
There's a lot contradictions between The Jewish/Christians Scripts and The Quran and there 2 ways to explain that:
1.Muhammad didn't knew the bible well.
2.Where there's a contradiction between Bible and Quran it's because Muhammad came to correct the corruption in The Jewish scripts
So if the Muslims accept 2:41 that Muhammad confirms the Jewish Scripts How can explain the contradiction between them?